NURSING OFFICER EXAM MCQs

SERIES - 5

(AIIMS, Kerala PSC,DME, DHS, RRB, ESIC, NIMHANS, DSSB, CHO, JIPMER, PGI, NHM)

1. T wave in the ECG graph represents

a) Ventricular depolarization

b) Atrial depolarization

c) Ventricular repolarization

d) Atrial repolarization

The correct answer is C) Ventricular repolarization.

Explanation: The T wave in an electrocardiogram (ECG) represents the repolarization of the ventricles, which is the process by which the ventricular muscle cells recover electrically and prepare for the next contraction.

Here's a brief overview of the ECG waveform:

P wave: Atrial depolarization
QRS complex: Ventricular depolarization
T wave: Ventricular repolarization
U wave: Sometimes seen, represents late ventricular repolarization

The other options are not correct:

A) Ventricular depolarization: This is represented by the QRS complex.

B) Atrial depolarization: This is represented by the P wave.

D) Atrial repolarization: Atrial repolarization occurs during the QRS complex, but it is not represented by a distinct wave on the ECG.

2. Which diagnostic test can measure the size and ejection fraction of heart?

a) Electrocardiography

b) Echocardiography

c) Treadmill test

d) Barium swallow

The correct answer is B) Echocardiography.

Explanation: Echocardiography, also known as an echo, is a non-invasive diagnostic test that uses ultrasound waves to create images of the heart. It can measure:

Heart size and structure
Ejection fraction (EF), which is the percentage of blood that is pumped out of the left ventricle with each contraction
Valve function and blood flow
Chamber sizes and wall thickness

Echocardiography is commonly used to:

Diagnose heart conditions such as heart failure, coronary artery disease, and valvular disease
Monitor the progression of heart disease
Evaluate the effectiveness of treatments

The other options are not correct:

A) Electrocardiography (ECG): An ECG measures the electrical activity of the heart, but it does not provide information on heart size or ejection fraction.

C) Treadmill test: A treadmill test, also known as a stress test, measures the heart's response to exercise, but it does not provide information on heart size or ejection fraction.

D) Barium swallow: A barium swallow is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the esophagus and stomach, not the heart.

3. After cardiac catheterization, immediate priority nursing intervention is

a) Check for distal pulses and bleeding from site

b) Provide bed rest for 4-6 hours and move the extremities every hourly

c) Ensure patient safety by helping him get out of the bed

d) Instruct to drink adequate fluid to flush out the contrast agent if used

The correct answer is A) Check for distal pulses and bleeding from the site.

Explanation: After cardiac catheterization, the immediate priority nursing intervention is to assess the patient for potential complications, such as:

Bleeding or hematoma at the insertion site
Decreased or absent distal pulses
Vascular compromise or limb ischemia

The nurse should:

Check the insertion site for bleeding, swelling, or hematoma
Assess distal pulses (e.g., pedal or radial pulses) to ensure adequate blood flow
Monitor for signs of vascular compromise, such as pain, numbness, or tingling

The other options are important, but not the immediate priority:

B) Providing bed rest and moving the extremities are important to prevent bleeding and promote healing, but they are secondary to assessing for potential complications.

C) Ensuring patient safety by helping them get out of bed is not an immediate priority after cardiac catheterization, as the patient will typically be on bed rest for several hours.

D) Instructing the patient to drink adequate fluid to flush out the contrast agent is important, but not the immediate priority. This can be done after the initial assessment and stabilization of the patient.

4. Osler nodes and Janeway lesions are manifestations of:......................?

a) Myocarditis

b) Endocarditis

c) Pericarditis

d) Aortic regurgitation

The correct answer is B) Endocarditis.

Explanation: Osler nodes and Janeway lesions are both skin manifestations associated with infective endocarditis.

Osler nodes: These are painful, indurated, and tender lesions that appear on the skin, typically on the fingers and toes. They are thought to be caused by immune complex deposition.
Janeway lesions: These are small, non-tender, and hemorrhagic lesions that appear on the palms and soles. They are thought to be caused by septic emboli.
Both Osler nodes and Janeway lesions are indicative of systemic infection and inflammation, which are hallmarks of endocarditis.

The other options are not correct:

A) Myocarditis: Myocarditis is inflammation of the heart muscle, but it is not typically associated with Osler nodes or Janeway lesions.

C) Pericarditis: Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, but it is not typically associated with Osler nodes or Janeway lesions.

D) Aortic regurgitation: Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve leaks, allowing blood to flow back into the left ventricle. While it can be a complication of endocarditis, it is not directly associated with Osler nodes or Janeway lesions.

5. With aging, this is often higher due to

a) Loss of muscle mass

b) Change in exercise and diet

c) Decreased peripheral resistance

d) Decreased elasticity in arterial walls

The correct answer is D) Decreased elasticity in arterial walls.

Explanation: With aging, the arterial walls undergo changes that lead to decreased elasticity, also known as arterial stiffness. This decreased elasticity can cause:

Increased systolic blood pressure (SBP)
Increased pulse pressure (PP)
Increased cardiac workload

Arterial stiffness is a natural consequence of aging, and it can be exacerbated by factors such as:

Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
Diabetes
Smoking

The other options are not directly related to the increase in systolic blood pressure with aging:

A) Loss of muscle mass: While loss of muscle mass can occur with aging, it is not directly related to increased systolic blood pressure.

B) Change in exercise and diet: Changes in exercise and diet can impact blood pressure, but they are not the primary reason for increased systolic blood pressure with aging.

C) Decreased peripheral resistance: Peripheral resistance actually tends to increase with aging, not decrease, due to the increased stiffness of the arterial walls.

6. People with mechanical valves require to take these medications lifelong

a) Antipyretics

b) Analgesics

c) Anticoagulants

d) Antibiotics

The correct answer is C) Anticoagulants.

Explanation: People with mechanical heart valves require lifelong anticoagulation therapy to prevent blood clots from forming on the valve. This is because mechanical valves are a foreign substance in the body, and the risk of blood clotting (thrombosis) is higher.

Anticoagulants, such as:

Warfarin (Coumadin)
Apixaban (Eliquis)
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)

Help to prevent blood clots from forming on the valve by inhibiting the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.

The other options are not correct:

A) Antipyretics: These medications are used to reduce fever, but they are not required lifelong for people with mechanical heart valves.

B) Analgesics: These medications are used to relieve pain, but they are not required lifelong for people with mechanical heart valves.

D) Antibiotics: While antibiotics may be prescribed for people with mechanical heart valves in certain situations (e.g., before dental procedures), they are not required lifelong.

7. Which of the following sign is positive in deep vein thrombosis?

a) Homan’s sign

b) Jaquemers’ sign

c) Kernig’s sign

d) Hegar’s sign

The correct answer is A) Homan's sign.

Explanation: Homan's sign is a clinical test used to assess for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The test involves:

Dorsiflexing the patient's foot (lifting the foot upwards)
Assessing for pain or tenderness in the calf or behind the knee

A positive Homan's sign is indicated by pain or tenderness in the affected area.

The other options are not correct:

B) Jaquemier's sign: This sign is related to pregnancy and is not relevant to DVT.

C) Kernig's sign: This sign is related to meningitis and is not relevant to DVT.

D) Hegar's sign: This sign is related to pregnancy and is not relevant to DVT.

It's worth noting that while Homan's sign can be positive in DVT, it is not a definitive diagnostic test. Imaging studies such as ultrasound or CT scans are typically used to confirm the diagnosis of DVT.

8. Which one of the following cardiac rhythms is NON-SHOCKABLE?

a) Ventricular tachycardia

b) Ventricular fibrillation

c) Pulseless electrical activity

d) Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

The correct answer is C) Pulseless electrical activity (PEA).

Explanation: Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is a non-shockable cardiac rhythm. PEA is characterized by:

A normal or near-normal electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm
No palpable pulse
No cardiac output

PEA is often caused by underlying conditions such as:

Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
Acidosis
Cardiac tamponade

The other options are shockable cardiac rhythms:

A) Ventricular tachycardia (VT): A life-threatening arrhythmia that requires immediate defibrillation.

B) Ventricular fibrillation (VF): A chaotic, disorganized rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation.

D) Pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT): A life-threatening arrhythmia that requires immediate defibrillation.

9. Which one of the following represents the full form of AED?

a) Autonomous External Defibrillator

b) Automated Extracorporeal Defibrillator

c) Automated External Desynchronizer

d) Automated External Defibrillator

The correct answer is D) Automated External Defibrillator

Explanation: An Automated External Defibrillator (AED) is a portable electronic device that automatically diagnoses the life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias of ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia. It is able to treat them through defibrillation, the application of electrical therapy which stops the arrhythmia, allowing the heart's normal rhythm to re-establish itself.

AEDs are designed to be used by people who are not medical professionals, and they can be found in many public places, such as shopping malls, airports, and offices.

The other options are not correct

10. The inotropic medication primarily:

a) Decreases afterload

b) Increases the force of contraction

c) Decreases Preload

d) Decreases heart rate

The correct answer is B) Increases the force of contraction.

Explanation: Inotropic medications are a class of drugs that alter the contractility of the heart muscle. They can either increase (positive inotropes) or decrease (negative inotropes) the force of contraction.

Positive inotropes, such as:

Dopamine
Dobutamine
Epinephrine

Increase the force of contraction, which can help to:

Increase cardiac output
Improve blood pressure
Enhance perfusion of vital organs

Negative inotropes, such as:

Beta-blockers
Calcium channel blockers

Decrease the force of contraction, which can help to:

Decrease cardiac workload
Reduce blood pressure
Prevent arrhythmias

The other options are not correct:

A) Decreases afterload: Afterload is the resistance that the ventricles must overcome to eject blood into the circulation. Inotropic medications primarily affect contractility, not afterload.

C) Decreases Preload: Preload is the initial stretching of the cardiac myocytes prior to contraction. Inotropic medications primarily affect contractility, not preload.

D) Decreases heart rate: Heart rate is influenced by chronotropic medications, not inotropic medications. Inotropic medications primarily affect contractility, not heart rate.

11.Which of the following ECG findings alerts the nurse that the client needs an antiarrhythmic?

a) Normal sinus rhythm

b) Sinus bradycardia

c) Sinus arrhythmia

d) Frequent ventricular ectopy

The correct answer is D) Frequent ventricular ectopy.

Examination: Ventricular ectopy, also known as premature ventricular contractions (PVCs), refers to abnormal heartbeats originating from the ventricles. Frequent ventricular ectopy can be a sign of a potentially life-threatening arrhythmia, such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.

Antiarrhythmic medications may be prescribed to:

Reduce the frequency and severity of ventricular ectopy
Prevent more serious arrhythmias from developing
Control symptoms such as palpitations, shortness of breath, and fatigue

The other options are not correct:

A) Normal sinus rhythm: This is a normal ECG finding, indicating a regular heartbeat.

B) Sinus bradycardia: This refers to a slower-than-normal heart rate, which may not necessarily require antiarrhythmic medication.

C) Sinus arrhythmia: This refers to an irregular heartbeat, but it is often a normal variation and may not require antiarrhythmic medication.

It's essential for nurses to closely monitor clients' ECGs and report any concerns to the healthcare team to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

12. A nurse has performed an ECG. At the time of interpretation, she found that it is a normal sinus rhythm. The normal duration of the QRS complex is:

a) 0.08-0.10 Sec

b) 0.2-0.8 Sec

c) 0.8-1.2 Sec

d) 1.2-2.0 Sec

The correct answer is A) 0.08-0.10 Sec.

Explanation: A normal QRS complex duration is typically between 0.08-0.10 seconds (80-100 milliseconds). This indicates that the electrical impulse is being conducted normally through the ventricles.

Prolonged QRS complex durations can indicate:

Abnormal ventricular conduction
Bundle branch blocks
Ventricular arrhythmias

Here's a breakdown of the other options:

B) 0.2-0.8 Sec: This duration is significantly longer than normal and may indicate a bundle branch block or other conduction abnormality.

C) 0.8-1.2 Sec: This duration is even longer and may indicate a more severe conduction abnormality or a ventricular arrhythmia.

D) 1.2-2.0 Sec: This duration is extremely long and may indicate a life-threatening arrhythmia or cardiac conduction system malfunction.

13. The nurse needs to inform the cardiac surgeon immediately when she observes which one of the following parameters during the first postoperative day of a patient who has undergone Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting?

a) Urine output <0.5 ml/kg/hour

b) Temperature of 99-degree Fahrenheit

c) Chest drainage of 100 ml over 4-6 hours

d) Discomfort at the incision site

The correct answer is A) Urine output <0.5 ml/kg/hour.

Explanation: Urine output is a critical indicator of renal function and overall cardiovascular stability. A urine output of less than 0.5 ml/kg/hour is considered oliguria, which can indicate:

Hypovolemia
Cardiac dysfunction
Renal dysfunction
Obstruction of the urinary catheter

In the postoperative period following Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG), oliguria can be a sign of:

Cardiac tamponade
Hypovolemia due to bleeding
Acute kidney injury

The other options are not correct:

B) Temperature of 99-degree Fahrenheit: This temperature is within normal limits.

C) Chest drainage of 100 ml over 4-6 hours: This amount of chest drainage is within normal limits for the first postoperative day after CABG.

D) Discomfort at the incision site: Some discomfort at the incision site is expected after surgery, but it is not a critical parameter that requires immediate notification of the cardiac surgeon.

14. A patient reports that he experiences chest pain whenever he performs activities, but it is relieved by taking a rest. This is an example of:

a) Unstable Angina

b) Stable Angina

c) Variant Angina

d) Prinzmetal Angina

The correct answer is B) Stable Angina.

Explanation: Stable angina, also known as exertional angina, is characterized by:

Chest pain or discomfort that occurs with physical activity or exertion
Pain is predictable and follows a consistent pattern
Pain is relieved by rest or sublingual nitroglycerin

This type of angina is often a sign of myocardial ischemia, which occurs when the heart muscle does not receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Stable angina is typically a chronic condition that can be managed with lifestyle changes, medications, and possibly angioplasty or coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG).

The other options are not correct:

A) Unstable Angina: This type of angina is characterized by sudden, unexpected chest pain that may occur at rest or with minimal exertion. The pain may be more severe and prolonged than stable angina.

C) and D) Variant Angina and Prinzmetal Angina: These terms refer to the same condition, which is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest, often at night, and is caused by coronary artery spasm. The pain is typically severe and may be accompanied by ST-segment elevation on an electrocardiogram (ECG).

15. Rheumatic heart disease results from rheumatic fever which is caused by

a) Bacterial infection

b) Protozoal infection

c) Viral infection

d) Fungal infection

The correct answer is a) Bacterial infection.

Explanation: Rheumatic fever (RF) is a complication of streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat), which is caused by a bacterial infection with Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS).

When GABHS infects the throat, it can trigger an autoimmune response, leading to inflammation and damage to the heart valves, joints, skin, and central nervous system. This autoimmune response is known as rheumatic fever.

Rheumatic heart disease (RHD) is a long-term consequence of rheumatic fever, where the heart valves are permanently damaged, leading to:

Valve stenosis (narrowing)
Valve regurgitation
Heart failure

The other options are not correct:

b) Protozoal infection: Protozoa are single-celled organisms that can cause infections such as malaria and toxoplasmosis, but they are not associated with rheumatic fever.

c) Viral infection: Viruses can cause a range of infections, but they are not associated with rheumatic fever.

d) Fungal infection: Fungi can cause infections such as candidiasis and aspergillosis, but they are not associated with rheumatic fever.

16. Heart valve affected most by rheumatic fever is

a) Tricuspid valve

b) Mitral valve

c) Aortic valve

d) Pulmonary valve

The correct answer is B) Mitral valve.

Explanation: Rheumatic fever (RF) can affect any of the heart valves, but the mitral valve is the most commonly affected, followed by the aortic valve.

The mitral valve is affected in approximately 60-70% of cases of rheumatic heart disease (RHD), which is a long-term consequence of RF. The valve can become:

Stenotic (narrowed)
Regurgitant (leaking)
Both stenotic and regurgitant

The other options are not correct:

A) Tricuspid valve: The tricuspid valve can be affected by RF, but it is less commonly involved than the mitral valve.

C) Aortic valve: The aortic valve can also be affected by RF, but it is less commonly involved than the mitral valve.

D) Pulmonary valve: The pulmonary valve is rarely affected by RF.

17. Diagnostic Criteria used for Infective Endocarditis ?

a) Jones Criteria

b) NYHA classification

c) Dukes Criteria

d) Rockall Criteria

The correct answer is: c) Duke’s Criteria

Explanation: Duke’s Criteria is used for diagnosing Infective Endocarditis (IE) . It includes major and minor criteria based on clinical, microbiological, and echocardiographic findings

Major criteria:

Positive blood culture for a typical IE pathogen
Evidence of endocardial involvement (e.g., echocardiogram showing vegetation)

Minor criteria:

Fever
Vascular phenomena (e.g., emboli, Janeway lesions)
Immunological phenomena (e.g., glomerulonephritis, Osler's nodes)
Microbiological evidence (e.g., positive blood culture for a less typical IE pathogen)

The other options are not correct:

B) NYHA classification: This is a classification system used to assess the functional capacity of patients with heart failure.

C) Dukes Criteria: This is not a commonly used term in the context of infective endocarditis.

D) Rockall Criteria: This is a risk scoring system used to predict the risk of bleeding in patients undergoing endoscopy.

18. Reticular activating system controls which one of the following?

a) Consciousness

b) Reflex action

c) Memory

d) Speech and vocabulary

The correct answer is A) Consciousness.

Explanation: The Reticular Activating System (RAS) is a network of neurons located in the brainstem that plays a crucial role in regulating:

Consciousness
Arousal
Sleep-wake cycles
Attention

The RAS acts as a filter, determining what sensory information is allowed to reach the brain's conscious awareness. It helps to:

Regulate the flow of sensory information
Filter out irrelevant information
Enhance relevant information

The other options are not correct:

B) Reflex action: Reflex actions are automatic responses to specific stimuli, controlled by the spinal cord and peripheral nervous system.

C) Memory: Memory is a complex cognitive function involving multiple brain regions, including the hippocampus, amygdala, and prefrontal cortex.

D) Speech and vocabulary: Speech and vocabulary are controlled by the language centers in the brain, including Broca's area and Wernicke's area.

19. Most used site for test dose of medications is

a) Forearm

b) Gluteal region

c) Deltoid muscle

d) Fingertips

The correct answer is A) Forearm.

Explanation: The forearm is a commonly used site for administering test doses of medications, particularly for:

Allergies
Anaphylaxis
Local anesthetic sensitivity

The forearm provides a relatively safe and accessible location for observing potential reactions to medications.

The other options are not correct:

B) Gluteal region: This site is often used for intramuscular injections, but it's not typically used for test doses due to the risk of nerve damage.

C) Deltoid muscle: While the deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections, it's not typically used for test doses.

D) Fingertips: Fingertips are highly sensitive and not typically used for administering test doses of medications.

When administering a test dose, it's essential to: Use a small amount of medication, Monitor for signs of reaction or allergy, Have emergency equipment and medications readily available

20. The pneumatic bed is used to prevent:

a) Joint pain

b) Pressure ulcer

c) Back pain

d) Hip pain

The correct answer is B) Pressure ulcer.

Explanation: Pneumatic beds, also known as air-fluidized beds or Clinitron beds, are specialized beds designed to prevent and treat pressure ulcers (also known as pressure sores or bedsores).

These beds use a layer of air-filled beads or bubbles to:

Reduce pressure on vulnerable areas, such as the skin
Promote blood flow and oxygenation to the skin
Keep the skin dry and clean

By reducing pressure and promoting blood flow, pneumatic beds can help prevent pressure ulcers from forming, especially in high-risk areas such as the sacrum, coccyx, and heels.

The other options are not correct:

A) Joint pain: While pneumatic beds can provide some comfort and support for joints, they are not specifically designed to prevent joint pain.

C) Back pain: Pneumatic beds can provide some support and comfort for the back, but they are not specifically designed to prevent back pain.

D) Hip pain: Similarly, pneumatic beds can provide some comfort and support for the hips, but they are not specifically designed to prevent hip pain.

21. A client with Parkinson’s disease is experiencing anorexia and vomiting since beginning of treatment with levodopa. What should be the initial action?

a) Assess his food preference

b) Monitor blood pressure

c) Hold medication

d) Administer medication with food

The correct answer is D) Administer medication with food.

Explanation: Levodopa, a common medication used to treat Parkinson's disease, can cause gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. Taking levodopa with food can help alleviate these symptoms by:

Reducing the peak plasma concentration of levodopa
Slowing down the absorption of levodopa
Providing a buffer against stomach upset

Administering levodopa with food, especially a high-carbohydrate meal, can help minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve tolerability.

The other options are not correct:

A) Assess his food preference: While assessing food preferences can be helpful, it does not directly address the issue of levodopa-induced nausea and vomiting.

B) Monitor blood pressure: Monitoring blood pressure is important, but it is not the initial action to take when addressing levodopa-induced gastrointestinal side effects.

C) Hold medication: Holding the medication may not be necessary, as adjusting the administration schedule or taking the medication with food can often alleviate gastrointestinal side effects.

22. Core body temperature is highest in the.................................?

a) Early mornin

b) Noon

c) Late afternoon

d) Night

The correct answer is C) Late afternoon.

Explanation: Core body temperature typically follows a circadian rhythm, with a natural fluctuation throughout the day. The temperature is usually:

Lowest in the early morning hours (around 2-4 am)
Highest in the late afternoon to early evening hours (around 4-6 pm)

This natural fluctuation is regulated by the body's internal clock and is influenced by various factors, such as:

Hormonal changes
Metabolic rate
Sleep-wake cycle

The other options are not correct:

A) Early morning: Core body temperature is usually at its lowest point in the early morning hours.

B) Noon: While the body temperature may start to rise during the day, it's not typically at its highest point at noon.

D) Night: Core body temperature usually starts to decrease at night, reaching its lowest point in the early morning hours.

23. Which one of these is not a cardiac biomarker?

a) Alkaline phosphatase

b) Creatinine kinase

c) Troponin

d) Myoglobin

The correct answer is A) Alkaline phosphatase.

Explanation: Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is an enzyme found in various tissues, including the liver, bones, and kidneys. While it can be elevated in certain conditions, such as liver disease or bone disorders, it is not a specific biomarker for cardiac damage or disease.

The other options are all cardiac biomarkers:

B) Creatinine kinase (CK): CK is an enzyme found in the heart, brain, and skeletal muscle. Elevated CK levels can indicate cardiac damage, such as myocardial infarction.

C) Troponin: Troponin is a protein found in cardiac muscle cells. Elevated troponin levels are highly specific for cardiac damage, such as myocardial infarction.

D) Myoglobin: Myoglobin is a protein found in cardiac and skeletal muscle cells. Elevated myoglobin levels can indicate cardiac damage, such as myocardial infarction.

24. A patient presents to the emergency department with blood pressure 180/130 mmHg, headache, and confusion. Which additional finding is consistent with diagnosis of hypertensive emergency?

a) Retinopathy

b) Bradycardia

c) Jaundice

d) Urinary retention

The correct answer is A) Retinopathy.

Explanation: A hypertensive emergency is a severe elevation in blood pressure that can cause damage to organs such as the brain, heart, kidneys, and eyes. The patient's presentation with:

Severe hypertension (180/130 mmHg)
Headache
Confusion

Retinopathy is a common finding in hypertensive emergencies, particularly in cases of malignant hypertension. Retinopathy can manifest as:

Papilledema (swelling of the optic disc)
Retinal hemorrhages
Retinal exudates

The other options are not consistent with a hypertensive emergency:

B) Bradycardia: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with hypertensive emergencies.

C) Jaundice: Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes) is not a typical finding in hypertensive emergencies.

D) Urinary retention: Urinary retention is not a typical finding in hypertensive emergencies.

25. The form of preparation where medication is encased in a gelatin shell

A. Capsule

B. Foam

C. Tablet

D. Enteric coated tablet

The correct answer is: A. Capsule

Explanation: A capsule is a dosage form where the medication is enclosed in a gelatin shell. Capsules can contain:

Powdered or granulated medication
Liquid medication

The gelatin shell dissolves in the stomach or intestine, releasing the medication.

Capsules are often used to:

Mask unpleasant tastes or odors
Improve bioavailability
Provide a convenient dosage form

The other options:

B. Foam: A lightweight, airy preparation, often used for topical or inhalation applications.
C. Tablet: A solid dosage form, often made by compressing powdered medication.
D. Enteric-coated tablet: A tablet with a special coating that resists stomach acid and releases the medication in the intestine.

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